Analysis of SSC CGLE 2022 Tier 2 (Paper 1) Online exam held from 2nd to 7th March 2023

The analysis of the SSC CGLE 2022 Tier II (Paper 1) exam conducted from 2nd to 7th of March is presented below.

This year, the pattern of the SSC CGLE Tier II (Paper 1) examination has seen a revised pattern of the test. The new pattern is given below.

Session	Subject	No. of Questions	Max. Marks	Duration
I (2 hrs 15 mins)	Section I:
	Module I: Mathematical Abilities	30	60 * 3 = 180	60 Min
	Module II: Reasoning & General Intelligence	30
	Section II:
	Module I: English Language & Comprehension	45	70 * 3 = 210	60 Min
	Module II: General Awareness	25
	Section III:
	Module I: Computer Knowledge	20	20 * 3 = 60	15 Min
	Total	150 Qs	450	135 Min
II (15 Mins)	Section III
	Module II: Data Entry Speed Test	One Task		15 Min

Changes in SSC CGLE 2022 Tier II Exam Scheme:

• Test Areas of General Awareness and Reasoning which were asked only in Tier I, have now found their place in Paper I of Tier II as well.
• English Language, which was earlier, tested as a separate paper i.e., Paper II, is now a module in Paper I itself.
• Computer Knowledge, which was never asked in CGLE, either in Tier I or in Tier II, will now be asked in paper I of Tier II.
• Data Entry Speed Test, which was earlier asked in Tier IV and was applicable for candidates applying for certain specific posts, is now being asked in Paper I of Tier II and is made compulsory for all posts.

The comprehensive (for all four slots) section-wise analysis of the exam is given below:

Section I:

Module I: Mathematical Abilities

This section can be rated as easy to moderate. About 6 to 7 new question types which are slightly different in the presentation were asked in the exam.

There were no questions on Quadratic Equations, Progressions and Data Interpretation.

A major chunk of questions (about 3 to 5) was given from each of the topics - Numbers, Plane Geometry, Mensuration, and Trigonometry. The number of questions from Algebra is restricted to one in each slot. Usually, more questions are given on this topic. There is one question on Probability and two questions from Statistics, which were present in every slot.

The questions from other topics like Equations, Ratio-Proportion-Variation, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnerships, Simple and Compound Interest, Averages, Mixtures and Alligations, Time and work, Time, Speed and Distance, have appeared as usual.

Difficulty Level - On observing the questions in all four slots, we can find that about 12 to 15 questions were easy, 9 to 12 questions were moderate in nature and about 4 to 6 questions can be classified as difficult.

A student could, therefore, have solved around 23 to 25 questions, if he/she chose judiciously.

Topic	No. of Questions
	2nd March	3rd March	6th March	7th March
Simple Equations	1	2	1	1
Ratio	1	2	2	0
Percentages	3	1	1	1
Profit and Loss	2	2	2	1
Partnerships	1	0	1	1
Simple and Compound Interest	2	2	2	2
Time and Work	1	1	1	2
Time, Speed and Distance	1	1	1	1
Averages	0	2	1	1
Mixtures and Alligations	1	0	1	1
Numbers	4	3	3	3
Geometry	3	3	5	4
Mensuration	2	3	2	2
Algebraic Expressions	1	1	1	1
Indices and Surds	1	1	1	2
Coordinate Geometry	0	0	0	1
Trigonometry	3	3	2	3
Probability	1	1	1	1
Statistics	2	2	2	2
Total	30	30	30	30

Module II: Reasoning & General Intelligence

This section has been given an 'Easy to Moderate' tag.

One important point to note here is that the topic-wise split and level of difficulty were the same across all the slots.

There were eight questions from Non-verbal Reasoning (Series, Analogies, OMO, Figure completion, Embedded figure, Paper cutting and Images) which were easy to moderate in nature. The questions on Odd Man Out and Analogy were tricky. The questions from the other topics of Non-Verbal Reasoning were similar in terms of difficulty level and presentation to those question types which were asked in Tier I of this exam.

The three questions from Critical Reasoning one each on Courses of Action, Cause and Effect, Conclusions and Inferences, and the two questions on Data Sufficiency were moderate in terms of the level of difficulty.

There were three questions from Symbols and Notations. Out of which two were on the BODMAS rule and one was on inequalities. These questions can be classified as easy to moderate.

There were two questions each from the Analytical puzzles, Blood Relations, and Coding-Decoding. The questions were easy to solve.

In all the slots, there were eight questions from topics of - Meaningful words, Similar sets, Number odd man out, Letter analogy (new model), Deductions, Number series, the verbal odd man out and Sequence in gaps.

The difficulty level of these questions ranges from easy to moderate.

An attempt of 25 questions is considered to be good in the Reasoning section.

Topic	No. of Questions
	2nd March	3rd March	6th March	7th March
Coding-Decoding	2	2	2	2
Blood Relations	2	2	2	2
Symbols and Notations	3	3	3	3
Analytical Puzzles	2	2	2	2
Non-verbal Reasoning (Series, Analogies, OMO, Figure completion, Embedded figure, Paper cutting and Images)	8	8	8	8
Data Sufficiency (2 Statements)	2	2	2	2
Critical Reasoning (Courses of Action, Cause and Effect, Conclusions, and Inferences)	3	3	3	3
Miscellaneous (Meaningful words, Similar sets, Number odd man out, Letter analogy (new model), Deductions, Number series, the verbal odd man out and Sequence in gaps)	8	8	8	8
Total	30	30	30	30

Section II:

Module I: English Language & Comprehension

The level of difficulty in terms of testing and presentation for the CGLE Tier II exam especially for the English language section is high when compared to previous years.

The vocabulary section and the Reading Comprehension section of this year are moderate to difficult compared to previous years.

On all four days, the last sixteen questions of the paper were dedicated to the Cloze test (4q) and Reading Comprehension (3 passages -12q, two passages on current affairs and one on the story).

New question types (As per the syllabus mentioned in the notification):

• About one to two questions on Homonyms were asked to be filled in the blanks.
• Sentence formation tested the rearrangement of parts of the sentence, though the presentation was different – either four parts or six parts with the first and the last fixed.
• Para Completion: The first and last sentences were fixed, and the candidate was asked to choose two sentences that could come in between the two fixed sentences. This could have taken test takers by surprise but was like para formation.

The vocabulary questions – synonyms/antonyms/spellings were on the lines of TIER I. The test taker was asked to identify the correct spelling / incorrect spelling/synonyms and antonyms of the words used in the given sentences.

Barring 2-3 questions, which were difficult, and a few questions, around 5, which were moderate, the English section can be termed as easy to moderate. A test taker could have easily attempted a minimum of 35 questions.

Topic	No. of Questions
	2nd March	3rd March	6th March	7th March
Synonyms	0	2	1	1
Antonyms	2	2	2	2
One Word Substitute	2	2	2	2
Idioms	2	2	2	2
Spelling	2	3	2	2
Active and Passive Voice	3	2	3	3
Direct and Indirect Speech	3	3	3	3
Best Replacement	1	0	1	1
Error Identification	2	2	2	2
PFQ	5	5	5	5
PFQ-Parts of a sentence	0	1	1	1
Homonyms	1	1	2	1
Fill in the blanks	4	3	3	4
Word Replacement	1	1	0	0
Para Completion	1	0	0	0
Cloze Test	4	4	4	4
Reading Comprehension	12	12	12	12
Total	45	45	45	45

Module II: General Awareness

Though the questions were asked from diverse areas in the four slots, certain areas like History, Geography, Constitution, Current Affairs, Schemes and Programmes and Sciences featured in all four slots.

The difficulty level of the GK section is increasing every year and this year was no exception. The number of difficult questions far exceeds the number of easy questions and the student must have thorough knowledge and understanding of the concepts to do well in this section.

Topic	No. of Questions
	2nd March	3rd March	6th March	7th March
Physics	4	3	2	3
Chemistry		2	2	1
Botany			2
Zoology	4	1	1	2
Geography /Locations	2	2	2	2
History + World History	3	2	3	3
Economics	2	1		3
Politics				1
Constitution	3	4	3	3
Schemes/Programs	1	2	2	2
Banking			1
Current Affairs	2	3	2	2
Awards	1
Environment		1	2	1
Literature (incl Books/Authors)		1
Sports	1	1	1
Miscellaneous / Dances	2	2	2	2
Total	25	25	25	25

Section III:

Module I: Computer Knowledge

Exam Held on 02/03/2023:

Most of the questions are asked from Computer Basics which are of moderate level of difficulty. The Questions from the topics MS Office, Cyber Security, and Networking are of Easy level. Overall, the level of difficulty for this module is moderate.

Exam Held on 03/03/2023:

The questions from the topic on Computer Basics, Internet are Easy. The questions from the topics Networking, Cyber Security, MS-word and MS-excel, are of moderate level of difficulty. Overall, the level of difficulty for this module is moderate.

Exam Held on 06/03/2023:

Questions on the topics of Computer Basics, Software, Networking and Cyber Security are Easy. The questions from the topic Software are of easy level. The questions based on Internet were of moderate level of difficulty. Overall, the level of difficulty for this module is easy.

Exam Held on 07/03/2023:

Most of the questions are asked from Computer Basics which are of moderate level of difficulty. The Questions from the topics Software, MS-word and MS-Excel are of moderate level of difficulty. The questions based on the Internet are of easy level. The questions posed from the topics of Networking and cyber security are of moderate level of difficulty. Overall, the level of difficulty for this module is moderate.

Topic	No. of Questions
	2nd March	3rd March	6th March	7th March
Computer Basics	8	8	8	8
Internet	4	4	4	3
Networking and Cyber Security	3	4	3	4
Software including MS-Office	5	4	5	5
Total	20	20	20	20