2023

#### Analysis of SBI Clerk 2023 Main Exam held on 25th February 2024 (Morning & Afternoon Sessions)

Analysis of SBI Clerk 2023 Main Exam held on 25th February 2024 (Morning & Afternoon Sessions)

It has been reported that the online SBI Clerk 2023 Main examination held on 25th February 2024 (Morning and Afternoon sessions) was moderate to difficult. The Quantitative Aptitude and Reasoning sections were moderate to difficult among the four sections. The GA section was moderate, and the English Section was easy to moderate.

The snapshot of the exam is given below.

S.No Name of Test No. of Qs Max Marks Duration
1 General / Financial Awareness 50 50 35 Minutes
2 General English 40 40 35 Minutes
3 Quantitative Aptitude 50 50 45 Minutes
4 Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude 50 60 45 Minutes
TOTAL 190 200 2 Hours 40 Minutes

The analysis of the above-mentioned sessions, as reported by our students, has been given below.

Quantitative Aptitude:

According to feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as moderate to difficult as well as time-consuming.

(a) Data Interpretation:

Morning Session:

There were four sets of Data Interpretation. The total number of questions asked was twenty. The questions were moderate and were calculation-based.

Table + Bar Graph: 5 questions - Moderate and calculation based. Total Calls (Inbound and Outbound) made by six persons are given in the Bar graph. The ratio of inbound and outbound calls is given in the table.

Single Pie-Chart: 5 questions - Easy to Moderate. Total items sold on five different days were given. Few values were given in variables (x, y..). The total value of the pie chart is not given, instead a relation among sales of two different days was given to find the variable values.

Missing Data Table: 5 questions - Moderate and calculation based. This set was based on the Profit and Loss concept. Cost price, Selling Price, marked price and discount were given in the data.

Caselet: 5 questions - Moderate and calculation based. This set was based on Profit and Loss. The information contains sales of four different varieties of toys, the cost price of each toy, Mark up % and Discount amount given.

Afternoon Session:

There were three sets of Data Interpretation. Total number of questions asked was twenty. The questions were moderate and were calculation-based.

Table + Line Chart: 5 questions - Moderate. The line graph shows the percentage of males in four apartments. The table contains the difference between the males and females. Condition-based were given and were lengthy and time-consuming.

Single Pie-Chart: 5 questions - Easy to Moderate. In pie chart representation the total profit of five articles was given and the sector values were represented in Percentage, Degree and single variable. Based on the data given in the questions, variable values to be found out and questions to be answered.

Missing Data Table: 5 questions - Moderate and calculation-based. This set was based on the enrollment of students in three different courses in four different colleges.

Caselet: 5 questions - Moderate and calculation-based. This set was based on Boats and Streams.

There were five questions on Quadratic Comparisons.

(b) Questions from Arithmetic Topics:

In both the slots, the questions asked were based on topics like Ages, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple and Compound Interest, Time and Distance (Trains), Time and Work, Mensuration, Probability, Averages and Mixtures & Alligations. Though not direct questions, they have been acknowledged as tricky ones that would certainly require a thorough knowledge of concepts to tide over them. The level of difficulty of the questions can be labelled as ‘Moderate’.

(c) Simplifications and Approximations:

In the morning session, there were 4 – 5 questions based on Simplifications that were easy to solve.

In the afternoon session, there were 3 – 4 questions on Approximations. These questions were easy to solve.

(d) Data Sufficiency:

In both the slots, there were 4 – 5 questions based on Data Sufficiency (2 Statements). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate.

(e) Data Comparison:

In both the slots, there were 4 – 5 questions based on Data Comparison (2 Quantities). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate.

In both the slots, there were 3 – 4 questions based on Quadratic Comparison. These questions can be rated as easy to moderate. The following two question types were also a part of this set.

(I) Condition-based Quadratic Equation (Variable given in the equation). In order to find the variable, either the largest or the smallest root was given.

(II) Solve two quadratic equations and find their roots. The question involves finding the Quadratic Equation from the options which is formed by using one root from each of the equations given above.

Number Series:

In both slots, set-based missing and wrong number series were given. In the morning session, there were four questions and in the afternoon session, there were two questions. These questions can be rated as ‘Moderate’.

The following table gives the topic-wise split of this section.

Topic No of Questions
Morning Session Afternoon Session
Data Interpretation 20 20
Speed Maths 4 - 5 (Simplifications) 3 - 4 (Approx)
Number Series (Missing and Wrong) 4 2
Individual Quant Questions 10 - 12 10 - 12
Quadratic Comparisons (Condition based) 3 - 4 3 - 4
Data Sufficiency (2 statements) 4 - 5 4 - 5
Data Comparison (2 Quantities) 4 - 5 4 - 5

Reasoning:

Overall, this section has been given a 'moderate to difficult' tag.

Analytical Puzzles:

Morning Session:

There were fifteen questions based on puzzles. There were five questions each on

(i) Floor Arrangement (Thirteen floors, nine persons, four vacant),
(ii) Linear Arrangement with Blood Relations (eight persons, all facing North) and
(iii) Direction puzzle (four directions, junctions, start and end points).

The puzzles based on Floor Arrangement and Linear Arrangement were moderate and the one based on Directions was difficult.

Afternoon Session:

There were sixteen questions based on puzzles. There were five questions each on the

(i) Month and Date based puzzle (four months and two dates, variable -country),
(ii) Linear Arrangement + Quant Based Reasoning (Eight persons facing North. Total score is 100 and score of each not more than 25),
(iii) Eight persons, five conditions, Variable – colour and
(iv) one question based on Circular Arrangement (Six persons all facing centre).

The puzzles based on Month and Date, Linear + QBR were moderate and the one based on Eight persons, five conditions was difficult.

Input-Output:

Morning Session:

There were five questions where eight words (Four letter words – 4 and Three letter words – 4) were given. The words are arranged in alphabetical order using method shifting. The questions can be rated as moderate.

Afternoon Session:

There were five questions, where eight words with seven letters were present. The logic was based on coding. The questions can be rated as moderate.

Symbols and Notations (Inequalities):

There were four questions on this topic (Three statements) in the morning session and 4 – 5 questions based on Coded inequalities in the afternoon session. These questions can be rated as easy to moderate.

Blood Relations:

There were three questions based on Coded Blood Relations in the morning session and four questions based on the passage in the afternoon session. These questions were easy to moderate in terms of difficulty level.

Coding-Decoding:

There were eight questions based on condition coding and new pattern coding in the morning session and three questions based on box-based coding in the afternoon session. These questions in the morning session were difficult and in the afternoon session were moderate in terms of difficulty level.

Data Sufficiency:

In both slots, there were 3 - 4 questions based on Data Sufficiency (2 Statements). These questions can be rated as easy to moderate.

Critical Reasoning:

There were 8 – 10 questions based on Critical Reasoning. These questions were tricky, and one should have a thorough understanding of the concepts (both English Grammar and Logical Reasoning) to answer these questions.

The questions were based on Statements Assumptions. Conclusions, Strong and Weak Arguments, Course of Action and Cause and Effect. These questions can be labelled as ‘Moderate to Difficult’.

The following table gives the topic-wise split of this section.

Topic No. of Questions
Morning Session Afternoon Session
Analytical Puzzles 15 (i)Floor Arrangement (Thirteen floors, nine persons, four vacant),
(ii) Linear Arrangement with Blood Relations (eight persons, all facing North) and
(iii)Direction-based puzzle (four directions, junctions, start and end points).
16 ( (i)Month and Date based puzzle (four months and two dates, variable -country),
(ii) Linear Arrangement + Quant based (Eight persons facing North. Total score is 100 and score of each not more than 25),
(iii)Eight persons, five conditions, Variable - colour and one question based on
(iv) Circular Arrangement (Six persons all facing centre)
Input Output 5 5
Symbols and Notations (Inequalities) 4 4 - 5
Blood Relations 3 4
Coding - Decoding 8 3
Critical Reasoning 8 - 10 8 - 10
Data Sufficiency 4 3
Step based series (Alphanumeric) - 4
Miscellaneous (Meaningful word, Word-based, Number based) 3 1

English Language:

According to feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, this section can be rated as moderate in terms of difficulty level.

Morning Session:

There were two passages with a total of fifteen questions. The level of difficulty of the questions can be pegged as ‘Moderate’.

The first passage was based on ‘The German Economy’. The terminology was difficult to understand. There were eight questions based on this passage out of which one question involved finding out the meaning of the phrase given in the passage. The other questions were direct questions based on the passage.

The second passage was based on ‘Wheat and Millet Production’. There were seven questions based on this passage out of which two questions were based on vocabulary (Synonym and Antonym). The other questions were direct questions based on the passage.

Afternoon Session:

There were two passages with a total of fifteen questions. The level of difficulty of the questions can be pegged as ‘Moderate’.

The first passage was based on ‘Crisis Management and Medical Supply’. There were eight questions based on this passage. The Passage contains two paragraphs and were named as Para 1 and Para 2.

There were seven questions based on the second passage out of which two questions were based on vocabulary (Synonym and Antonym). The other questions were direct questions based on the passage. The passage contains three paragraphs.

Error Identification:

Morning Session:

Three questions with four different sentences each were presented. One has to find out two statements which contain errors. These questions were moderate to difficult.

Afternoon Session:

Five questions with two different sentences each with four parts were presented. One has to find out which of the parts in the two statements contains the error. These questions were moderate to difficult.

Word Interchange:

Morning Session:

There were seven questions in this slot which were easy to moderate. In each question, two sentences each with two words in bold were given. One has to interchange the words in the sentences to form a meaningful sentence.

Afternoon Session:

There were five questions in this slot which were easy to moderate. A sentence with six words in bold were given and one has to interchange the four out of the six words in the sentence to form a meaningful sentence.

Cloze Passage:

Morning Session:

There were six questions based on Cloze's passage. The passage contains six blanks. Three words were suggested against each blank. The student must select one word which will fit in the blank. These questions can be rated as ‘Moderate’.

Afternoon Session:

There were no questions based on Cloze Passage.

Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank):

Morning Session:

Fill-in-the-blank questions were not present in this session.

Afternoon Session:

There were five questions based on a single blank present in this session. These questions were easy to answer.

Miscellaneous:

There were two questions based on Sentence Rearrangement, four questions on Word Usage (One word, three usages), two questions based on Word Replacement and one question on Theme present in the morning session. These questions can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’.

The were four questions based on Sentence Starters, two questions based on Para Forming (five sentences, arranging all five sentences) and four idiom-based questions were present in the afternoon session. These questions can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’.

The following table gives the topic-wise split of this section.

Topic No. of Questions
Morning Session Afternoon Session
Reading Comprehension 15 (2 passages) 15 (2 passages)
Error Identification 3 (Four Sentences) 5 (Two Sentences)
Word Interchange 7 5
Cloze test 6 -
FIB (Single Blank) - 5
Sentence Rearrangement 2 -
Word Usage (One word, three usages) 4 -
Word Replacement 2 -
Theme based 1 -
Sentence Starters - 4
Para Forming (Five Sentences) - 2
Idiom based - 4

General Awareness:

About half of the questions asked here were on Current Affairs while the rest were related to the Economy, Banking etc. A lot of questions were related to the events that happened in Dec 2023 and Jan 2024.

Overall, the paper can be given a moderate - difficult tag.

#### Analysis of SBI Clerk (Prelim) Online exam held on 6th Jan 2024 (Shift 4)

The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2023 Prelim exam held on the 6th of January 2024 (Shift 4) has been presented below. The exam had a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.

Snapshot of the Exam:

 Test Area No. of questions Duration Numerical Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins Reasoning Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins English Language 30 Questions 20 Mins Total no. of Questions 100 Qs 60 Mins

No of choices per question – 5

Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question.

As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.

The section-wise analysis of the session as reported by our students, is given below:

Numerical Ability:

This section can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’ but time-consuming.

This section had a similar topic-wise split as compared to the exam conducted across various shifts on 5th Jan and 6th Jan 2024, except for Data Interpretation where ten questions (five each on two Caselets) were present, instead of the regular five questions on Data Interpretation.

The questions on Data Interpretation were time-consuming. There were five questions on Number Series (Wrong Number) which can be rated as easy to moderate. There were fourteen questions on Simplifications, of which ten to eleven were easy and the rest were moderate.

Individual questions from topics of Ratio, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Simple Interest and Mixtures and Alligations were six in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones. A few questions were lengthy to solve.

A student could, therefore, have solved around 20 - 22 questions in 20 minutes if he chose judiciously.

 Topic No. of Questions Data Interpretation (Two Caselets) 10 Simplifications 14 Number Series (Wrong Number) 5 Individual Quant Questions 6

Reasoning:

This section has been given an 'Easy to Moderate' tag.

There were eighteen questions on Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Two Parallel rows with five persons each), Circular Arrangement (seven persons), Box Arrangement (7 boxes) and Comparisons which were easy to solve. There were five questions each on Coding-Decoding, Sequence and Deductions (Syllogisms).

About 24 to 26 questions could be solved in 20 minutes. As reported by our students, the topic-wise split is as given below.

 Topic No of Qs Difficulty Level Sequence 5 Easy Deductions (Syllogisms) 5 Easy to Moderate Coding - Decoding 5 Easy Miscellaneous (Pair of Letters, Number Arrangement and OMO) 3 Easy Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Two Parallel rows with five persons each) 5 Easy Circular Arrangement (seven persons) 5 Easy Box Arrangement (seven boxes) 5 Easy Comparisons 2 Easy

English Language:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate’.

This section was on similar lines to the exam conducted on 5th Jan and 6th Jan (various slots) in terms of topic-wise split and difficulty level, except that the questions on the Cloze Test were missing in this slot whereas the question based on ‘Word Interchange’ found a place in this slot.

• There was a single passage on Reading Comprehension and comprised ten questions. The passage is based on ‘Wood Pecker’. There was one question based on Theme and two on Synonyms.

• There were five questions each on ‘Error Identification’, ‘Para Forming Questions’ (six sentences) and Phrase Replacement.

• There were four questions on Fill in the Blank (Single Blank)

Thus, about 22 - 24 questions could be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

 Topic No of Questions Reading Comprehension 10 Para Forming Questions (six Sentences) 5 Error Identification 5 Phrase Replacement 5 Fill in the Blank (Single Blank) 4 Word Interchange 1

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.

Good Attempts:

 Test Area Good Attempts Numerical Ability 20 - 22 Reasoning Ability 24 - 26 English Language 22 – 24 Overall 66 - 72

#### Analysis of SBI Clerk (Prelim) Online exam held on 6th Jan 2024 (Shift 3)

The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2023 Prelim exam held on the 6th of January 2024 (Shift 3) has been presented below. The exam had a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.

Snapshot of the Exam:

 Test Area No. of questions Duration Numerical Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins Reasoning Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins English Language 30 Questions 20 Mins Total no. of Questions 100 Qs 60 Mins

No of choices per question – 5

Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question.

As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.

The section-wise analysis of the session as reported by our students, is given below:

Numerical Ability:

This section can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’ but time-consuming.

This section had a similar topic-wise split as compared to the exam conducted across various shifts on 5th Jan and 6th Jan 2024, except for Data Interpretation where nine questions (five on Table and four on Caselet) were present, instead of the regular five questions on Data Interpretation.

The questions in the Data Interpretation based on Table were easy whereas the questions based on Caselet were time-consuming. There were five questions on Number Series (Missing Number) which can be rated as easy to moderate. There were twelve questions on Simplifications, of which eight to nine were easy and the rest were moderate.

Individual questions from topics of Ages, Ratio, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Time and Work, Mixtures and Alligations, Boats and Streams, and Mensuration were nine in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones. A few questions were lengthy to solve.

A student could, therefore, have solved around 20 - 22 questions in 20 minutes if he chose judiciously.

 Topic No. of Questions Data Interpretation (Table and Caselet) 9 Simplifications 12 Number Series (Missing Number) 5 Individual Quant Questions 9

Reasoning:

This section has been given an 'Easy to Moderate' tag.

This section was lengthy and time-consuming.

There were eighteen questions on Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Unknown number of persons), Square Arrangement (eight persons), Scheduling (one after the other), and Distribution (Months and Dates) which were easy to solve. There were three questions each on Symbols and Notations (Inequalities), Blood Relations and Deductions (Syllogisms). There were five questions on the Sequence (Only numbers).

About 23 to 25 questions could be solved in 20 minutes. As reported by our students, the topic-wise split is as given below.

 Topic No of Qs Difficulty Level Sequence (Only numbers) 5 Easy Symbols and Notations (Inequalities) 3 Easy Blood Relations 3 Easy Direction Sense 1 Easy Deductions (Syllogisms) 3 Easy to Moderate Coding - Decoding 1 Easy Miscellaneous (Pair of Letters) 1 Easy Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Unknown number of persons) 3 Easy Square Arrangement (eight persons) 5 Easy Scheduling (one after the other) 5 Easy Distribution (Months and Dates) 5 Easy

English Language:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy to Moderate’. The section was time-consuming as reported by our students.

This section was on similar lines to the exam conducted on 5th Jan and 6th Jan (various slots) in terms of topic-wise split and difficulty level, except that the questions on the Cloze Test were missing in this slot whereas the questions based on ‘Match the Clauses (Column-based)’ found a place in this slot.

• There was a single passage on Reading Comprehension and comprised nine questions. The passage is based on ‘Scarcity of water’.

• There were six questions on ‘Error Identification’, and five questions each on ‘Para Forming Questions’ (five sentences) and Wrongly Spelt words/Inappropriate usage’.

• There were three questions on Phrase Replacement and one question each on ‘Match the Clauses (Column-based)’ and Sentence Rearrangement

Thus, about 21 - 23 questions could be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

 Topic No of Questions Reading Comprehension 9 Para Forming Questions (five Sentences) 5 Error Identification 6 Phrase Replacement 3 Wrongly Spelt / Inappropriate Usage 5 Sentence Rearrangement 1 Match the Clauses (Column-based) 1

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy to moderate.

Good Attempts:

 Test Area Good Attempts Numerical Ability 20 - 22 Reasoning Ability 23 - 25 English Language 21 - 23 Overall 64 - 70

#### Analysis of SBI Clerk (Prelim) Online exam held on 6th Jan 2024 (Shift 1)

The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2023 Prelim exam held on the 6th of January 2024 (Shift 1) has been presented below. The exam had a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.

Snapshot of the Exam:

 Test Area No. of questions Duration Numerical Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins Reasoning Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins English Language 30 Questions 20 Mins Total no. of Questions 100 Qs 60 Mins

No of choices per question – 5

Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question.

As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy.

The section-wise analysis of the session as reported by our students, is given below:

Numerical Ability:

This section can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’.

This section has a similar topic-wise split as compared to the exam conducted across various shifts on 5th Jan 2024, except for Data Interpretation where Line Graph was present instead of Bar/Table.

The questions based on Data Interpretation were easy to solve. There were five questions on Number Series (Missing Number) which can be rated as easy to moderate. There were fifteen questions on Simplifications, of which eleven to thirteen were easy and the rest were moderate.

Individual questions from topics of Ages, Ratio, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Time and Work, Mixtures and Alligations, Boats and Streams, Mensuration were ten in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.

A student could, therefore, have solved around 25 - 27 questions in 20 minutes if he chose judiciously.

 Topic No. of Questions Data Interpretation (Line Graph) 5 Simplifications 15 Number Series (Missing Number) 5 Individual Quant Questions 10

Reasoning:

This section has been given an 'Easy' tag.

This section is on similar lines to the exam conducted on 5th Jan (various slots) in terms of topic-wise split and difficulty level, except that the questions on Coding-Decoding and Blood Relations were missing in this particular slot.

There were nineteen questions on Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Unknown number of persons), Linear Arrangement (Eight persons facing North), Circular Arrangement (Eight persons facing Centre), and Distribution (Months and Dates) which were easy to solve. There were three questions each on Symbols and Notations (Inequalities), Direction Sense and Deductions (Syllogisms). There were five questions on the Set of words. These questions were easy to solve.

About 28 to 30 questions could be solved in 20 minutes. As reported by our students, the topic-wise split is as given below.

 Topic No of Qs Difficulty Level Set of Words 5 Easy Symbols and Notations (Inequalities) 3 Easy Direction Sense 3 Easy Deductions (Syllogisms) 3 Easy to Moderate Miscellaneous (Pair of Letters, Number Arrangement) 2 Easy Puzzles Linear Arrangement (Unknown number of persons) 4 Easy Linear Arrangement (Eight persons facing North) 5 Easy Circular Arrangement (Eight persons facing Centre) 5 Easy Distribution (Months and Dates) 5 Easy

English Language:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy’ by our students.

This section is on similar lines to the exam conducted on 5th Jan (various slots) in terms of topic-wise split and difficulty level, except that the questions on Phrase Replacement were missing in this slot whereas the questions based on ‘Match the Clauses (Column-based)’ found a place in this slot.

• There was a single passage on Reading Comprehension and comprised eight questions. Out of eight questions, one question was based on Filler.
• There were five questions each on the ‘Cloze Test’, ‘Error Identification’, and ‘Para Forming Questions’ (five sentences). The questions on the Cloze test, Error Identification and Para Forming were easy.
• There were three questions on ‘Match the Clauses (Column-based)’ and four on ‘Wrongly Spelt words/Inappropriate usage’.

Thus, about 25 - 27 questions could be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

 Topic No of Questions Reading Comprehension 8 Cloze Test 5 Para Forming Questions (five Sentences) 5 Error Identification 5 Wrongly Spelt / Inappropriate Usage 4 Match the Clauses (Column-based) 3

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

 Test Area Good Attempts Numerical Ability 25 - 27 Reasoning Ability 28 - 30 English Language 25 - 27 Overall 78 - 84

#### Analysis of SBI Clerk (Prelim) Online exam held on 5th Jan 2024 (Shift 3)

The analysis of the SBI Clerk 2023 Prelim exam held on the 5th of January 2024 (Shift 3) has been presented below. The exam had a sectional time limit, no navigability between any section, and each section time bound for 20 minutes.

Snapshot of the Exam:

 Test Area No. of questions Duration Numerical Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins Reasoning Ability 35 Questions 20 Mins English Language 30 Questions 20 Mins Total no. of Questions 100 Qs 60 Mins

No of choices per question – 5

Negative marking: 0.25 of the marks assigned to each question.

As per feedback received from our students who appeared for this exam, the exam can be rated as easy to moderate.

The section-wise analysis of the above-mentioned session, as reported by our students, is given below:

Numerical Ability:

This section can be rated as ‘Easy to Moderate’.

The questions based on Data Interpretation were easy to solve. There were five questions on Number Series (Wrong Number) which can be rated as easy to moderate. There were fifteen questions on Simplifications, of which ten to twelve were easy and the rest were moderate.

Individual questions from topics of Ages, Ratio, Percentages, Profit and Loss, Partnership, Time and Work, Mixtures and Alligations, Boats and Streams were ten in number. These were a combination of easy and moderate ones.

A student could, therefore, have solved around 23 - 24 questions in 20 minutes if he chose judiciously.

 Topic No. of Questions Data Interpretation (Bar Graph) 5 Simplifications 15 Number Series (Wrong Number) 5 Individual Quant Questions 10

Reasoning:

This section has been given an 'Easy' tag.

There were fifteen questions on Puzzles (Linear Arrangement (Two parallel rows – five persons in each row), Distribution (seven persons, seven days), and Box Arrangement (8 boxes) which were easy to solve. There were three questions each on Direction Sense and Deductions (Syllogisms). There were five questions on the Set of words and four on Coding-Decoding. These questions were easy to solve.

About 27 to 28 questions could be solved in 20 minutes. As reported by our students, the topic-wise split is as given below.

 Topic No of Qs Difficulty Level Set of Words 5 Easy Blood Relations 2 Easy Direction Sense 3 Easy Coding-Decoding 4 Easy Deductions (Syllogisms) 3 Easy to Moderate Miscellaneous (Meaningful word, Pair of Letters, Number Arrangement) 3 Easy Puzzles (Linear Arrangement (Two parallel rows – five persons in each row) 5 Easy Distribution (seven persons, Seven days) 5 Easy Box Arrangement (8 boxes) 5 Easy

English Language:

This section has been tagged as 'Easy’ by our students.

• The lone Reading Comprehension passage was conventional in its presentation and comprised of nine to ten questions.

• There were five questions each on the ‘Cloze Test’, ‘Error Identification’, and ‘Fill in the Blanks. The cloze test was based on ‘Water Research’ and was easy. The questions on Error Identification and Fill in the Blanks were easy whereas the questions based on Para Forming can be rated as easy to moderate.

• There were 2 to 3 questions on ‘Phrase Replacement’. These were easy to solve.

Thus, about 24 - 25 questions could be solved in 20 minutes in the English section. The break-up of the questions is as follows:

 Topic No of Questions Reading Comprehension 9 - 10 Cloze Test 5 - 6 Para Forming Questions 3 Error Identification 5 Fill in the Blanks (Single Blank) 5 Phrase Replacement 2 - 3

Overall, the paper can be rated as easy.

Good Attempts:

 Test Area Good Attempts Numerical Ability 23 - 24 Reasoning Ability 27 - 28 English Language 24 - 25 Overall 74 - 77